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Lineage-associated mutations #180
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I don't understand what you mean by this statement, could you please expand? |
The output returns sites with variants that are significantly associated with a phenotype, the samples in which the variants are found, and the lineage the variant is most associated with. In the output, there are instances where variants are expressed in strains from lineage x, but the variants are associated with lineage y. How can a variant be associated with lineage y if all of the variants are expressed in strains from lineage x? |
I think it might help if you were able to provide some examples of output(s) you're referring to? Can I also confirm that by 'expressed' you mean 'present'? |
Here is the code used to determine the lineage: So we (logistic) regress k-mer presence against lineage markers, and take the strongest association.
We should probably change the behaviour of 2) in either case, but to rule out 1) you could check what rank the expected lineage is in the lineage effects file. (note, I think 2) may need to be thought about a bit more using MDS components, would a negative association still be ok?) |
I've included three lineages, and I used the --lineage-clusters option. I'm still not sure why the variants would be associated with a lineage where no strains express that variant |
Could you share the contents of |
Ok based on that, I think it's option 2). What you could do is replace lines 176-181 in
i.e. remove and then run again. Note that you can run from source if you clone the repo, and run |
Great, I'll try that |
I ran the lmm with the lineage option. It returned significant hits associated with certain lineages. I looked at the strains expressing the significant hits and found that they are expressed in lineage 1, but the output noted they are associated with lineage 2. How is this possible?
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